Why Do Some Translations of 1 Corinthians 11:3 Use 'Woman' Instead of 'Wife'?
- Mike Leake Borrowed Light
- Updated Jan 10, 2024
I couldn’t figure out why everyone was laughing. I was preaching to a group of teenagers and kept using a phrase that I’d heard, even used several times before, and each time I used the word, kids would snicker. It even started to draw in some of the adults in the room.
The specific word isn’t necessary to share; only the story. I was using a word that in my context and upbringing, meant something entirely innocuous. But when I used it with a group of teenagers, I soon discovered the phrase had taken on a different meaning.
We know that words can have multiple meanings and that certain phrases do not cross cultures very well. KFC’s “Finger-lickin’ good” doesn’t sound appetizing when it’s translated into an invitation to cannibalism in China.
It’s comical when it comes to advertising. But on occasion, these different word meanings intersect in controversial situations.
In Greek, the word γυνή (gynē) can be translated as either wife or woman. Its meaning is discovered based on the context. Innocent enough, right? Not so fast. There are a few places in Scripture where this phrase enters into a field of landmines.
One of these is 1 Corinthians 11:3 and Paul’s discussion of head-coverings. Some translations use the word “woman,” and others use the term “wife.” Which is it?
Which Translations Use ‘Woman’ Instead of ‘Wife’?
It’s not odd to have different translations of phrases in our English Bibles. Such is the nature of translating a text from one language into another.
The dynamic nature of language also means that in order to be faithful in conveying the proper meaning, we need to update the words (not ever changing the original but updating the language to properly translate to a contemporary audience).
Often, you’ll notice a difference between the KJV and those that use the Textus Receptus, compared to modern translations, which use a different textual basis for their translations. In the case, however, of 1 Corinthians 11:3, the divide isn’t between text groups. Here is the text in both the ESV and the KJV.
But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a wife is her husband, and the head of Christ is God (ESV).
But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God (KJV).
The KJV, HCSB, NASB, NIV, NKJV, and NLT are translations that use “woman,” and the ESV, MSG, NRS, GNT, and GW are translations that use the word “wife.”
This list might make it seem as if it’s a fairly even contest. Yet, if you’re only vaguely familiar with translations, you’ll probably recognize most of those listed on the left side.
You’ll perhaps be scratching your head as you read down the first list. In other words, almost all major translations use the word “woman” instead of “wife.” Why, then, does the ESV (among others) translate this text as wife?
Why Translate Gynē as Wife?
As noted earlier, our difficulty here is that the same Greek word is used for “wife” and “woman,” context helps determine the meaning. The same is true for “man” and “husband.” We must determine which meaning is intended by looking at the context.
There are reasons why the ESV translates this as “wife” instead of “woman.” Perhaps the most convincing argument is that typically, when ἀνήρ (aner) and γυνή (gyne) are combined, it is a reference to husband and wife.
As Clampa and Rosner have said, “When the words for men/husbands and women/wives are found together and discuss the relationships between one and the other, usually husband-and-wife relationships are being discussed, and that is probably Paul’s primary concern here.”
One might further argue that Paul then moves on to discuss the relationship between Adam and Eve. They are not a generic man and woman — they are the first husband and wife.
Thus, it would make sense to be discussing wives instead of women in general. Yet, there are also compelling reasons to translate this as “woman.”
Why Translate Gynē as Woman?
It seems most logical to translate both aner and gynē consistently throughout this passage. It would seem odd for Paul to bounce back and forth between speaking about men in general and then only husbands.
Whatever we make of the meaning of “head” and the discussion of head coverings, it is clear that Paul’s concern is maintain a social order that is consistent with God’s creative order.
Would he fulfill this purpose by moving from a discussion about men to husbands and then back to men again?
If the meaning is relatively clear that Christ is the head of every man, why would we assume that he then says the head of every wife is her husband?
Would it not be most consistent to say that the head of every man is a woman? Is there any indicator that Paul intends to switch meaning here? The repetition of these words seems intentional.
The words of Leon Morris are informative: “Marriage is not mentioned. Paul has just used the same word in the expression every man, which plainly refers to mankind, not husbands (cf. 8:6). Further, to understand woman here as ‘wife’ raises the question of unmarried women.”
Morris brings out another important point here. If we’re only talking about wives — how do unmarried women fit into this construct? Does this social order only apply to married women?
The issue seems to be that both genders are engaging in activity, which is blurring gender distinctiveness. If this is the case, and we cannot be entirely certain, how would only mentioning husbands and wives assist Paul’s argument?
Perhaps a mediating position between the two is to be preferred. Paul’s overarching principle can be applied to both men and women.
But as part of all “men” and “women,” it may have a special meaning for the relationship between husband and wife. This is the position adopted by Schreiner when he says:
“Paul’s instructions, then, naturally apply in a specific way to the marriage relationship, but his main concern in this text is not marriage but the adornment of women in the corporate assembly. Hence, he naturally thinks of the relationship between men and women in general, not just wives and husbands.”
With all this being said, which is it? Personally, I lean towards translating this as “woman” instead of “wife.” I do this simply because the context doesn’t strongly enough warrant a change in verse 3 to husband and wife.
However, I could be convinced if evidence were shown of a specific social situation where the use/disuse of head coverings was associated more with the behavior of a husband/wife relationship than women in general.
Perhaps the key question is to consider why how we translate this matters.
Why Does This Matter?
The bigger issue here in verse 3 is the meaning of the word “head.” This is where we find more division, and that division bleeds over into our understanding of “husband” or “wife.”
If we translate kephalē (head) as “source” or “representative,” then there isn’t much of a struggle with how we interpret the “husband/wife” or “man/woman” in the text.
Observe the difference:
The origin of every woman is man. (Eve came from Adam’s rib). The origin of every wife is her husband. (This makes less sense, and thus, we would definitely lean towards translating this as “woman”).
The representative of every woman is a man. (Adam was the covenantal/representative head of all humanity). The representative of every wife is her husband. (This certainly makes sense in any society which is more patriarchal).
The authority of every woman is man. (That sounds a little cringey. Does this mean that any woman is under the authority of every man? That might cause us to translate this as “husband” and “wife.” Especially in complementarian circles where that would be far more acceptable).
The authority of every wife is her husband. (This perfectly fits within many complementarian readings of the text).
My point here is that I believe a dedication to a particular rendering of kephalē is what is driving the ESV translation of “wife” instead of “woman.”
Historically, heated debates on gender roles were less prominent. Thus, older translations go for the more obvious rendering of “woman” instead of “wife.”
All of this to say, find where you land on the meaning of kephalē, and you’ll likely figure out where you land on whether or not this is husband/wife or man/woman.
And it will also help you know how to apply the text. The meaning of kephalē is more significant and will have more of a bearing on application than how we translate gynē.
For further reading:
5 Myths about Being a Submissive Wife
Why Are Husbands Told to Love Their Wives?
5 Things Christians Get Wrong about ‘Wives Respect Your Husbands’
Photo Credit: ©Getty Images/Goran13
